[Mar-2026] AAPC CPC DUMPS WITH REAL EXAM QUESTIONS [Q124-Q146]

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[Mar-2026] AAPC CPC DUMPS WITH REAL EXAM QUESTIONS

2026 New Pass4guide CPC PDF Recently Updated Questions


AAPC CPC Exam Syllabus Topics:

TopicDetails
Topic 1
  • The Business of Medicine: This section of the exam measures the skills of medical coders and covers foundational knowledge regarding the healthcare system, reimbursement models, insurance payers, HIPAA compliance, and the ethical responsibilities coders hold within clinical and billing environments. It establishes the context in which coding decisions directly affect healthcare operations and financial outcomes.
Topic 2
  • Applying the ICD-10-CM Guidelines: This section of the exam measures the skills of coding specialists and covers how to apply official ICD-10-CM guidelines to real-world coding scenarios. It emphasizes the hierarchy of instructional notes, general and chapter-specific rules, and how to make judgment calls within compliant coding frameworks.
Topic 3
  • Urinary System and Male Genital System: This section of the exam measures the skills of medical coders and assesses understanding of procedures on kidneys, bladder, ureters, prostate, and male reproductive organs. Proper use of CPT codes for surgical and diagnostic interventions is tested.
Topic 4
  • Radiology: This section of the exam measures the skills of coding specialists and focuses on diagnostic imaging procedures including X-rays, CT scans, MRIs, ultrasounds, and nuclear medicine. It emphasizes proper selection of codes based on anatomical site and modality used.
Topic 5
  • Review of Anatomy: This section of the exam measures the skills of coding specialists and covers a high-level understanding of human anatomy. It includes organs, systems, directional terminology, and anatomical locations, enabling coders to link procedures and diagnoses to the correct bodily structures with accuracy and consistency.
Topic 6
  • Overview of ICD-10-CM: This section of the exam measures the skills of medical coders and introduces the structure, format, and usage of the ICD-10-CM coding system. It reviews the purpose of ICD-10-CM in diagnosis reporting and prepares candidates to interpret chapters, code ranges, and conventions embedded in the system.
Topic 7
  • Female Reproductive System and Maternity Care & Delivery: This section of the exam measures the skills of coding specialists and evaluates coding accuracy for gynecological and obstetric procedures. It includes deliveries, antepartum care, cesarean sections, and surgical procedures involving female reproductive anatomy.
Topic 8
  • Anesthesia: This section of the exam measures the skills of medical coders and involves coding anesthesia services based on surgical site, complexity, and time. It tests the understanding of anesthesia modifiers and the importance of linking anesthesia codes with the correct primary procedures.
Topic 9
  • Cardiovascular System: This section of the exam measures the skills of coding specialists and addresses services related to the heart, arteries, and veins. It involves the coding of diagnostic and therapeutic procedures, including catheterizations, bypasses, and repairs.:
Topic 10
  • Digestive System: This section of the exam measures the skills of coding specialists and evaluates the coding of surgeries and procedures involving the oral cavity, pharynx, esophagus, stomach, intestines, liver, pancreas, and related organs. Understanding endoscopic procedures is particularly critical here.
Topic 11
  • Respiratory System: This section of the exam measures the skills of medical coders and evaluates the ability to code procedures involving the nose, sinuses, larynx, trachea, bronchi, and lungs. Attention is given to services like endoscopies, excisions, and resections within the respiratory tract.
Topic 12
  • Hemic & Lymphatic Systems, Mediastinum, Diaphragm: This section of the exam measures the skills of medical coders and includes procedures related to the spleen, lymph nodes, bone marrow, as well as surgical interventions in the mediastinum and diaphragm. Coders must differentiate procedures by region and system accurately.
Topic 13
  • Pathology & Laboratory: This section of the exam measures the skills of medical coders and includes lab tests, specimen analysis, and pathological examination procedures. It ensures that coders understand how to apply codes for chemistry panels, cultures, and histopathological diagnostics.
Topic 14
  • Endocrine System and Nervous System: This section of the exam measures the skills of medical coders and assesses the ability to assign codes for surgeries involving glands, the brain, spinal cord, and peripheral nerves. Procedures like resections and electrical stimulation are part of the evaluated content.
Topic 15
  • Accurate ICD-10-CM Coding: This section of the exam measures the skills of medical coders and focuses on the precise assignment of diagnosis codes using the ICD-10-CM system. The goal is to ensure accurate representation of patient conditions, proper sequencing, and a clear linkage between diagnoses and services.
Topic 16
  • Special Senses (Ocular and Auditory): This section of the exam measures the skills of coding specialists and covers the coding of procedures related to the eyes and ears. Topics include surgeries on the cornea, retina, and middle
  • inner ear, as well as related diagnostic procedures.

 

NEW QUESTION # 124
A patient presents with fever, cough, SOB, and a recent history of COVID-19. A PCR test was positive for COVID-19. The provider documents a final diagnosis of "pneumonia with history of COVID-19." What ICD-10-CM coding is reported?

  • A. U07.1, J20.9
  • B. U07.1, J22
  • C. J18.9, Z86.16
  • D. J18.9, U09.9

Answer: C

Explanation:
The provider documents history of COVID-19, not active COVID-19.
Z86.16 = Personal history of COVID-19
J18.9 = Pneumonia, unspecified organism
Codes U07.1 and U09.9 are for current or post-COVID conditions, which are not documented here. Therefore, A is correct.


NEW QUESTION # 125
An established patient suffering from migraines without aura, no mention of intractable migraine, and no mention of status migrainosus, is seen by his ophthalmologist who conducts a visual field examination of both eyes. The examination was accomplished plotting four isopters utilizing the Goldmann perimeter testing method. The patient and requesting physician receive the interpretation and report on the same date of service.
What procedure and diagnosis codes are reported for this encounter?

  • A. 92083, G43.019
  • B. 92082, G43.019
  • C. 92081, G43.009
  • D. 92082, G43.009

Answer: D

Explanation:
Procedure: Visual field examination of both eyes using Goldmann perimeter testing with four isopters.
CPT Code:
92082: This code is for visual field examination with intermediate examination.
ICD-10-CM Code:
G43.009: Migraine without aura, not intractable, without status migrainosus.
Code Selection Justification: The visual field exam method and complexity align with 92082. The patient's diagnosis of non-intractable migraine without aura is coded as G43.009.
AMA CPT Professional Edition (current year)
ICD-10-CM (current year)


NEW QUESTION # 126
A patient with three thyroid nodules is seen for an FNA biopsy. Using ultrasonic guidance, the provider inserts a 25-gauge needle into each nodule. Nodular tissue is aspirated and sent to pathology.
What CPT coding reported?

  • A. 10021, 10004 x 2, 76942
  • B. 10005, 10006 x 2, 76942
  • C. 10005, 10006 x 2
  • D. 10006 x 3

Answer: C


NEW QUESTION # 127
The gynecologist performs a colposcopy of the cervix including biopsy and endocervical curettage.
What CPT code is reported?

  • A. 0
  • B. 1
  • C. 2
  • D. 3

Answer: A

Explanation:
Colposcopy of the Cervix: This involves a visual examination of the cervix using a colposcope.
Biopsy and Endocervical Curettage: The procedures performed include taking a biopsy and scraping the lining of the cervical canal.
CPT Code 57454: This code represents a colposcopy of the cervix with biopsy and endocervical curettage.
Reference:
AMA's CPT Professional Edition (current year)


NEW QUESTION # 128
Refer to the exhibit.

Refer to the supplemental information when answering this question:
View MR 623654
What CPTO coding is reported for this case?

  • A. 14001, 11606-51, 12034-51
  • B. 0
  • C. 14001, 11606-51
  • D. 1

Answer: B


NEW QUESTION # 129
This 27-year-old male has morbid obesity with a BMI of 45 due to a high calorie diet. He has decided to have an open Roux-en-Y gastric bypass. The patient is brought to the operating room and placed in supine position. A midline abdominal incision is made. The stomach is mobilized, and the proximal stomach is divided and stapled creating a small proximal pouch in continuity with the esophagus. A short limb of the proximal bowel of 155 cm is divided. It is brought up and anastomosed to the gastric pouch. The other end of the divided bowel is connected back into the distal small bowel to the short limb's gastric anastomosis to restore intestinal continuity. The abdominal incision is closed.
What are the procedure and diagnosis codes for this encounter?

  • A. 43645, E66.8, Z68.42
  • B. 43847, E66.01, Z68.42
  • C. 43644, E66.01, Z68.43
  • D. 43847, E66.9, Z68.42

Answer: B


NEW QUESTION # 130
A physician prescribes carbamazepine to treat a patient with epileptic seizures. After six months, the physician performs a therapeutic drug test to monitor the total level of the drug in the patient.
What CPT and ICD-10-CM coding is used for the six month-evaluation?

  • A. 80156, R56.9
  • B. 80157, G40.909
  • C. 80157, R56.9
  • D. 80156, G40.909

Answer: D


NEW QUESTION # 131
A patient with a history of chronic venous embolism in the inferior vena cava has a radiographic study to visualize any abnormalities. In outpatient surgery the physician accesses the subclavian vein and the catheter is advanced to the inferior vena cava for injection and imaging. The supervision and interpretation of the images is performed by the physician.
What codes are reported for this procedure?

  • A. 36010, 75827-26
  • B. 36010, 75825-26
  • C. 36000, 75827-26
  • D. 36000, 75825-26

Answer: B

Explanation:
For the procedure involving access to the subclavian vein and advancing a catheter to the inferior vena cava for injection and imaging, the following codes are used:
36010 for the catheter placement.
75825-26 for the supervision and interpretation of the imaging.
Modifier -26 indicates the professional component of the radiological supervision and interpretation.
Reference:
AMA's CPT Professional Edition (current year)
ICD-10-CM (current year)


NEW QUESTION # 132
Where is a Warthin's tumor found?

  • A. Salivary gland
  • B. Back of eye
  • C. Ovary
  • D. Bone

Answer: A


NEW QUESTION # 133
A patient with three thyroid nodules is seen for an FNA biopsy. Using ultrasonic guidance, the provider inserts a 25-gauge needle into each nodule. Nodular tissue is aspirated and sent to pathology.
What CPT coding reported?

  • A. 10021, 10004 x 2, 76942
  • B. 10005, 10006 x 2, 76942
  • C. 10005, 10006 x 2
  • D. 10006 x 3

Answer: C

Explanation:
The CPT code 10005 is for fine needle aspiration biopsy, including ultrasound guidance, for the first lesion.
CPT code 10006 is for each additional lesion with ultrasound guidance. Since the provider aspirated tissue from three nodules, the coding should be 10005 for the first nodule and 10006 x 2 for the additional two nodules.
AMA's CPT Professional Edition (current year)


NEW QUESTION # 134
A 55-year-old patient with suspected liver cancer was seen by the physician to obtain a biopsy. The special biopsy needle was placed using ultrasonic guidance. The physician obtained a small tissue sample from the liver, which was then sent to pathology.
What CPT codes are reported?

  • A. 47000, 10005
  • B. 47000, 76942-26
  • C. 47000, 77002-26
  • D. 47100, 77012-26

Answer: B

Explanation:
* Procedure: The physician performed a liver biopsy using ultrasonic guidance.
* CPT Codes:
* 47000: This code is for the liver biopsy.
* 76942-26: This code is for ultrasonic guidance for needle placement, with modifier -26 indicating the professional component.
* Code Selection Justification: The CPT code 47000 specifically captures the liver biopsy, and
76942-26 accurately represents the ultrasonic guidance utilized during the procedure.
References:
* AMA CPT Professional Edition (current year)
* ICD-10-CM (current year)
* HCPCS Level II (current year)


NEW QUESTION # 135
A patient undergoes coronary angiography for chest pain. Coronary arteries are normal, and CAD is ruled out.
What CPT and ICD-10-CM codes are reported?

  • A. 93455, R07.9
  • B. 93454, R07.9
  • C. 93454, I25.10, R07.9
  • D. 93455, I25.10, R07.9

Answer: B

Explanation:
93454 = Coronary angiography
R07.9 = Chest pain, unspecified
CAD code is not reported when ruled out


NEW QUESTION # 136
An otolaryngologist performs a tympanoplasty with mastoidectomy, reconstruction of the posterior ear canal wall, and ossicular chain reconstruction.
What CPT code is reported?

  • A. 0
  • B. 1
  • C. 2
  • D. 3

Answer: C

Explanation:
69642 = Tympanoplasty with mastoidectomy and ossicular chain reconstruction Other codes represent variations without ossicular reconstruction or canal wall work


NEW QUESTION # 137
(A patient is in her otolaryngologist's office to receive therapeutic treatment forasthmatic bronchitis with status asthmaticus. A subcutaneous injection ofomalizumab (150 mg)is given in her left upper arm. What is the CPT and ICD-10-CM coding?)

  • A. 90471, J2357 × 30, J45.902
  • B. 96369, J2357 × 30, J45.52
  • C. 90460, J2357 × 30, J45.52
  • D. 96372, J2357 × 30, J45.902

Answer: D

Explanation:
Omalizumab is a drug reported withHCPCS J2357, and the dose is converted into billable units based on the code's unit definition. In CPC-style questions,150 mgis commonly represented asJ2357 × 30 units(i.e., 5 mg per unit # 150/5 = 30). Administration is atherapeutic subcutaneous injection, reported with96372(therapeutic, prophylactic, or diagnostic injection; subcutaneous or intramuscular). Vaccine administration codes (90460
/90471) are not appropriate because omalizumab is not a vaccine. For diagnosis, the statement includesstatus asthmaticusbut does not specify severity category (mild/moderate/severe persistent). In the options provided, J45.902is the "unspecified asthma with status asthmaticus" concept, whereas J45.52 requires severe persistent asthma with status asthmaticus (not documented). Therefore, the correct pairing is96372 + J2357 × 30 + J45.
902. CPC exam tip: match administration code type (therapeutic injection vs immunization) and choose the most specific ICD-10-CM supported by documentation.


NEW QUESTION # 138
The mediastinum is:

  • A. A part of the lymphatic system
  • B. A small endocrine organ behind the heart
  • C. Both the heart and lungs
  • D. A location in the chest, bounded by the sternum, diaphragm, and lungs

Answer: D

Explanation:
The mediastinum is an anatomical region located in the thoracic cavity. It is bounded by the sternum in front, the vertebral column at the back, and is situated between the lungs. It contains the heart, trachea, esophagus, thymus, and other structures, but it is not itself an organ. Therefore, the correct answer is that it is a location in the chest.
ICD-10-CM, Medical Anatomy and Physiology textbooks


NEW QUESTION # 139
A 5-year-old patient has a fractured radius. The orthopedist provides moderate sedation and the reduction. The time is documented as 21 minutes.
What CPT code is reported for the moderate sedation?

  • A. 0
  • B. 1
  • C. 2
  • D. 3

Answer: B

Explanation:
99152 - Moderate sedation, same physician, patient under 5 years, initial 15 minutes Time documented: 21 minutes First 15 minutes = 99152 Additional 15 minutes (99153) not reported separately in CPT exam context Why others are incorrect:
99151 - Minimal sedation
99155 / 99156 - Different age/provider scenarios


NEW QUESTION # 140
(Which place of service code is submitted on the claim for a procedure that is performed in a patient'sprivate residence?)

  • A. 0
  • B. 1
  • C. 2
  • D. 3

Answer: D

Explanation:
For professional claims,Place of Service (POS) 12is used to indicate services performed in the patient'shome
/private residence. This is a high-frequency reimbursement concept because POS impacts payer processing, fee schedules, and in some cases whether certain services are payable. POS codes like 41 and 42 are not used for a private home setting:41is typically associated withambulance-land, and42withambulance-air or water (transport settings rather than a location of patient residence). POS 65 refers to a specific facility-type setting (commonly associated withend-stage renal disease treatment facilities) and is not a home. On CPC-style questions, the key is recognizing that "private residence" equalshome-not assisted living, skilled nursing, or a facility. Correct POS reporting supports medical necessity review and correct payment and helps prevent denials, recoupments, and compliance risk. When documentation states the service occurred at the patient's residence, POS 12 is the standard selection.


NEW QUESTION # 141
Patient has cervical spondylosis with myelopathy. The surgeon performed a bilateral posterior laminectomy with facetectomies at each level and foraminotomies performed between interspaces C5-C6 and C6-C7. Bilateral decompression of the nerve roots is achieved.
What CPT coding is reported?

  • A. 0
  • B. 63050-50
  • C. 63040-50, 63043, 63043
  • D. 63045, 63048

Answer: D


NEW QUESTION # 142
A 45-year-old female presents to the ED with chest pain. The provider has an Albumin Cobalt Binding Test to determine if the chest pain is ischemic in nature.
That lab test is reported?

  • A. 0
  • B. 1
  • C. 2
  • D. 3

Answer: D


NEW QUESTION # 143
A Medicare patient that is on dialysis for ESRD is seen by the nurse for a Hep B vaccination. This patient is given a dialysis patient dosage as part of a three-dose schedule. The nurse administers the Hep B vaccine in the right deltoid. The physician reviews the chart and signs off on the nurse's note.
What procedure and diagnosis codes are reported for the scheduled vaccine injection for this Medicare patient?

  • A. 99211-25, G0010, 90740, B19.10, N18.6, Z99.2
  • B. 90471, 90746, Z23, N18.6, Z99.2
  • C. 90471, 90746, Z23, B19.10, N18.6, Z99.2
  • D. G0010, 90740, Z23, N18.6, Z99.2

Answer: D


NEW QUESTION # 144
A patient with multiple atypical lesions on the face and trunk is in the office to perform a biopsy. A punch tool was used to obtain a full-thickness tissue sample for two lesions on the trunk.
Partial-thickness tissue sample was taken from one lesion on the forehead using a curette.
What CPTcoding is reported?

  • A. 11104, 11103 x 2
  • B. O11104, 11102 x 2
  • C. 11104 x 2, 11102
  • D. 11104, 11105, 11103

Answer: C

Explanation:
The CPTcodes for skin biopsies depend on the method used and the location of each lesion. Here, the scenario includes:
1. Two punch biopsies on the trunk: CPTcode 11104 is used for a full-thickness punch biopsy of the skin, and 11104 x 2 is appropriate since two lesions on the trunk were sampled.
2. One partial-thickness shave biopsy on the forehead: CPTcode 11102 is used for a tangential (shave) biopsy, which captures a partial-thickness sample, appropriate for the forehead lesion.
Explanation of other options:
B: 11104, 11105, 11103: Incorrect, as 11105 is an add-on for additional punch biopsies at separate sites but not used here.
C: 11104, 11103 x 2: 11103 is an add-on code for additional shave biopsies, which does not apply to the punch biopsies on the trunk.
D: 11104, 11102 x 2: Incorrect, as 11102 is only used for the shave biopsy, not for the punch biopsies.


NEW QUESTION # 145
A 55-year-old patient with suspected liver cancer was seen by the physician to obtain a biopsy. The special biopsy needle was placed using ultrasonic guidance. The physician obtained a small tissue sample from the liver, which was then sent to pathology.
What CPTcodes are reported?

  • A. 47000, 10005
  • B. 47000, 76942-26
  • C. 47000, 77002-26
  • D. 47100, 77012-26

Answer: B

Explanation:
* Procedure: The physician performed a liver biopsy using ultrasonic guidance.
* CPTCodes:
* 47000: This code is for the liver biopsy.
* 76942-26: This code is for ultrasonic guidance for needle placement, with modifier -26 indicating the professional component.
* Code Selection Justification: The CPTcode 47000 specifically captures the liver biopsy, and 76942-
26 accurately represents the ultrasonic guidance utilized during the procedure.
References:
* AMA CPTProfessional Edition (current year)
* ICD-10-CM (current year)
* HCPCS Level II (current year)


NEW QUESTION # 146
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